If a midas crossed to a nonfader will (going by your explanantion) produce less than 1 out of 4 fader fry -1 in 4 would be 25%- why does midas to midas produce 100% fader fry? How would that even be possible? Going very strictly by your theory, a midas to midas mating should produce less than 2 in 4 faders, which is less than 50%.